[BLML] Do you believe a claim of mispull?

Alain Gottcheiner agot at ulb.ac.be
Mon Aug 3 13:09:37 CEST 2009


David Grabiner a écrit :
> It seems to have become common that players who commit an infraction with a 
> bidding box claim to have mispulled, rather than to have made a mental error. 
> Should we treat this claim skeptically, as we do when a player who had 
> unauthorized information claims that he had no logical alternative in his 
> bidding system, or claims that he has an unmarked agreement and there was a 
> misbid rather than misinformation?
>
> For example:
>
> W   N   E
> 1S  2D  2C
>
> When the director was called about the insufficient bid, East claimed to have 
> mispulled, and thus South was not given a chance to accept the insufficient bid. 
> This is certainly a reasonable mispull, but East's hand was rather weak to have 
> intended a 3C bid. 
AG : 2C responses are so strong nowadays that I don't think there would 
be a big difference.

>  (I don't know whether N-S were damaged by denying South the 
> opportunity to accept the 2C bid.)
>   
AG : this is indeed the only problem, because a rectification to 3C 
would most probably be allowed even using L25B.

This raises an interesting point : IBs are one case where "pulling the 
case back to what would have happened had the infraction not occurred" 
isn't the main concern ; else, one would have to allow the player to bid 
3C even if opponents wanted to accept the IB.


Of course, the answer to your question is "the gestures and facial 
expression of the player will tell the truth", and of course we weren't 
there at the moment to see them.

But I would be prone to accept the claim, because it doesn't damage NS, 
and this is as good a criterion as any.

> I have also seen players claim a mispull which was unlikely given the call; one 
> player claimed to have mispulled a pass when he intended to make a bid (and not 
> a skip bid; mispulling a pass when the intention was to pull the STOP card is 
> reasonable). 
>   
AG : anything could happen. 1NT in lieu of 1C would seem suspicious 
(especially if they play variable NTs), but somme BBs have the 1NT card 
where others have 1C, and not every TD is conscious of that fact.

A live case :

1H      p      2H      ...p
p         X      XX     

What did responder want to bid ? Does anybody guess ? (response below)


Best regards

  Alain





















He wanted to pull the TD card to signal the tempo.






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